"Is it trade mark use in the sense of Article 5(1) Sentence 2 (a) 89/104/EEC Directive, if a third party specifies a sign to the operator of a search engine, where that sign is identical to a trade mark, without the trade mark proprietor's consent as a keyword for the purpose that when the sign, which is identical to the trade mark, is entered as a search term in the search engine, a sales-promoting electronic link to the website of the third party will be displayed, which serves as advertisement for identical goods and services, and which is displayed in a advertising block that is separate from the actual search results, provided this link is marked as an advertisement und provided the advertisement itself does not include the sign, nor a reference to the trade mark proprietor or a reference to the products offered by the trade mark proprietor?"The Bundesgerichtshof's German original:
"Liegt eine Benutzung im Sinne von Art. 5 Abs. 1 Satz 2 lit. a der Richtlinie 89/104/EWG vor, wenn ein Dritter ein mit der Marke identisches Zeichen ohne Zustimmung des Markeninhabers einem Suchmaschinenbetreiber gegenüber als ein Schlüsselwort (Keyword) zu dem Zweck angibt, dass bei Eingabe des mit der Marke identischen Zeichens als Suchwort in die Suchmaschine ein absatzfördernder elektronischer Verweis (Link) zur Website des Dritten als Werbung für identische Waren oder Dienstleistungen in einem von der Trefferliste räumlich getrennten Werbeblock erscheint, dieser Verweis als Anzeige gekennzeichnet ist und die Anzeige selbst weder das Zeichen noch sonst einen Hinweis auf den Markeninhaber oder auf die von diesem angebotenen Produkte enthält?"
This Kat welcomes alternative, more elegant translations from our readers, while we are awaiting the official translation.
The decision can be viewed in its entirety (in German) by clicking here.
a rather long question!
ReplyDeleteHello IPKat,
ReplyDeletemy comment relates back to an earlier posting concerning this case, where the IPKat expressed his concern over the term 'use as a trade mark'. Is this an example where legislature is limping behind technology? I would assume that the necessity to use the mark 'as a trade mark' was conceived to prevent the registered user from hogging a desirable mark, but now it may be a sneaky way to permit infringement, because arguably in this case the third party and search engine designers didn't use the mark as a trade mark, which the operators and designers of the search engines, who use the mark to guide users to their own product, would be rather aware of. As technology marches ahead, I would expect courts to be flexible in their interpretation, in order to give effect to the underlying intent of the law. Or is that naive?
Also, I look at the unofficial translation from German to English, and thought it was perfectly fine.
Good night